Percentage of female managers in three different levels between 1990 t0 2005.
Some people think that the ranges of technology available to individual’s increase the gap between rich people and poor people, the others think the opposite effects. Discuss both sides, and give you own opinion.
Presently, many would vaunt the gap between the rich and poor, attributing such a gap to the thriving of modern technology.But some others would dispute this view. What lies between such arguments is the definition of the word"gap",the cons and pros would argue from their points of view as follows:
The pros for such an idea come up with many examples , ranging from the internet stock exchange and mobile communication, they believe such methods of technology have broaden the gap between the better-off and the poorer because they can add much faster to the wealthier's fortune and less to the poor's wallets.Examples of trillionaires are various from Bill Gates to some famous website owners, who are mostly related to the development of internet or communication. In this sense, the gap between them and the rest is increasing.
The cons stand still to their definition of "gap". The gap of living standard between the poor and the rich is actually decreasing for the improvement of technology. In the past ,car owners are very much like showing off their status and wealth, the case was quite similar to the first generation of mobile phone owners.But when technology has overwhelmed such gap, we can see how popular cars and mobile phones are, they are no longer any symbols of status. Another example is from the way that people travel, we used to take a train, but presently most people would prefer to take a flight if the destination is quite far away.Such gap between the rich and poor is not as obvious as before.
As my conclusion, I would say that such a dispute can reach no result due to the vagueness of topic, IELTS had better give some more clarified or common-based argument to share.